How did GA Cohen argue that financial inequality limits freedom/choice?

In capitalist societies (or any society supremely boundarized by private property ownership), money facilitates choice. The less money a person has, the less choices they have, until…ultimately, if they have no money at all…their choices become so limited that they have virtually no “freedom” by any standard. I expand upon the same basic ideas in my paper The Goldilocks Zone of Integral Liberty, where I quote Cohen:

“Consider those goods and services, be they privately or publicly provided, which are not provided without charge to all comers. Some of the public ones depend on special access rules (you won’t get a state hospital bed if you are judged to be healthy, or a place in secondary school if you are forty years old). But the private ones, and many of the public ones, are inaccessible save through money: giving money is both necessary for getting them, and, indeed, sufficient for getting them, if they are on sale. If you attempt access to them in the absence of money, then you will be prey to interference.”


My 2 cents.

From Quora: https://www.quora.com/How-did-GA-Cohen-argue-that-financial-inequality-limits-freedom-choice

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